Situation: Mr. Ibarra is assigned to the triage area and while on duty, he assesses the condition of Mrs. Simon who came in with asthma. She has difficulty breathing and her respiratory rate is 40 per minute. Mr. Ibarra is asked to inject the client epinephrine 0.3 mg subcutaneously.
1. The indication for epinephrine injection for Mrs. Simon is to:
a. reduce anaphylaxis
b. relieve hypersensitivity to allergen
c. relieve respiratory distress due to bronchial spasm
d. restore client’s cardiac rhythm
2. When preparing the epinephrine injection from an ampule, the nurse initially:
a. taps the ampule at the top to allow fluid to flow to the base of the ampule
b. checks expiration date of the medication ampule
c. removes needles cap of syringe and pulls plunger to expel air
d. breaks the neck of the ampule with a gauze wrapped around it
3. Mrs. Simon is obese. When administering subcutaneous injection to an obese patient, it is BEST for the nurse to:
a. inject needle at a 15-degree angle over the stretched skin of the client
b. pinch skin at the injection site and use air-lock technique
c. pull skin of patient down to administer the drug in a Z-track technique
d. spread skin or pinch at the injection site and inject needle at a 45-90 degree angle
4. When preparing for a subcutaneous injection, the proper size of syringe and needle would be:
a. syringe 3-5 ml and needle gauge 21 to 23
b. tuberculin syringe 1 ml with needle gauge 26 or 27
c. syringe 2 ml and needle gauge 22
d. syringe 1-3 ml and needle gauge 25 to 27
5. The rationale for giving medications through the subcutaneous route is:
a. there are many alternative sites for subcutaneous injection
b. absorption time of the medicine is slower
c. there are less pain receptors in this area
d. the mediation can be injected while the client is in any position
Situation: The use of massage and meditation to help decrease stress and pain have been strongly recommended based on documented research.
6. Martha wants to do a study on this topic: “Effects of massage and meditation on stress and pain.” The type of research that best suits this topic is:
a. applied research
b. qualitative research
c. basic research
d. quantitative research
7. The type of research design that does not manipulate independent variable is:
a. experimental design
b. quasi-experimental design
c. non-experimental design
d. quantitative design
8. This research topic has the potential to contribute to nursing because it seeks to:
a. include new modalities of care
b. resolve a clinical problem
c. clarify an ambiguous modality of care
d. enhance client care
9. Martha does review of related literature for the purpose of:
a. determining statistical treatment of data research
b. gathering data about what is already known or unknown about the problem
c. to identify if problem can be replicated
d. answering the research question
10. Client’s rights should be protected when doing research using human subjects. Martha identifies these rights as follows EXCEPT:
a. right of self-determination
b. right to compensation
c. right of privacy
d. right not to be harmed
Situation: Richard has a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance related to excessive secretions and is at risk for infection because of retained secretions. Part of Nurse Mario’s nursing care plan is to loosen and remove excessive secretions in the airway.
11. Mario listens to Richard’s bilateral sounds and finds that congestion is in the upper lobes of the lungs. The appropriate position to drain the anterior and posterior apical segments of the lungs when Mario does percussion would be:
a. client lying on his back then flat on his abdomen on Trendelenburg position
b. client seated upright in bed or on a chair then leaning forward in sitting position, then flat on his back and on his abdomen
c. client lying flat on his back , and then flat on his abdomen
d. client lying on his right, then left side on Trendelenburg position
12. When documenting outcome of Richard’s treatment, Mario should include the following in his recording EXCEPT:
a. color, amount and consistency of sputum
b. character of breath sounds and respiratory rate before and after procedure
c. amount of fluid intake of client before and after the procedure
d. significant changes in vital signs
13. When assessing Richard for chest percussion for chest vibration and postural drainage, Mario would focus on the following EXCEPT:
a. amount of food and fluid taken during the last meal before treatment
b. respiratory rate, breath sounds and location of congestion
c. teaching the client’s relatives to perform the procedure
d. doctor’s order regarding position restrictions and client’s tolerance for lying flat
14. Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion. Which of the following is a special consideration when doing the procedure?
a. respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute
b. client can tolerate sitting and lying positions
c. client has no signs of infection
d. time of last food and fluid intake of the client
15. The purpose of chest percussion and vibration is to loosen secretions in the lungs. The difference between the procedures is:
a. percussion uses only one hand while vibration uses both hands
b. percussion delivers cushioned blows to the chest with cupped palms while vibration gently shakes secretions loose on the exhalation cycle
c. in both percussion and vibration, the hands are on top of each other and hand action is in tune with the client’s breath rhythm
d. percussion slaps the chest to loosen secretions while vibration shakes the secretions along with the inhalation of air
Situation: A 61-year old man, Mr. Regalado, is admitted to the private ward for observation after complaints of severe chest pain. You are assigned to take care of the client.
16. When doing an initial assessment, the best way for you to identify the client’s PRIORITY problem is to:
a. interview the client for chief complaints and other symptoms
b. talk to the relatives to gather data about history of illness
c. do auscultation to check for chest congestion
d. do a physical examination while asking the client relevant questions
17. Upon establishing Mr. Regalado’s nursing needs, the next nursing approach would be to:
a. introduce the client to the ward staff to put the client and family at ease
b. give client and relatives a brief tour of the physical set-up of the unit
c. take his vital signs for a baseline assessment
d. establish priority needs and implement appropriate interventions
18. Mr. Regalado says he has “trouble going to sleep.” In order to play your nursing intervention, you will:
a. observe his sleeping patterns in the next few days
b. ask him what he means by this statement
c. check his physical environment to decrease noise level
d. take his blood pressure before sleeping and upon waking up
19. Mr. Regalado’s lower extremities are swollen and shiny. He has pitting pedal edema. When taking care of Mr. Regalado, which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate nursing approach?
a. moisturize lower extremities to prevent skin irritation
b. measure fluid intake and output to decrease edema
c. elevate lower extremities for postural drainage
d. provide the client a list of food low in sodium
20. Mr. Regalado will be discharged from your unit within the hour. Nursing actions when preparing a client for discharge include all EXCEPT:
a. making a final physical assessment before client leaves the hospital
b. giving instructions about his medication regimen
c. walking the client to the hospital exit to ensure his safety
d. proper recording of pertinent data
Situation: Nancy, mother of two young kids, 36 years old, had a mammogram and was told that she has breast cysts and that she may need surgery. This causes her anxiety as shown by increase in her pulse and respiratory rate, sweating and feelings of tension.
21. Considering her level of anxiety, the nurse can best assist Nancy by:
a. giving her activities to diver her attention
b. giving detailed explanations
c. preparing her and her family in case surgery is not successful
d. giving her clear but brief information at the level of her understanding
22. Nancy blames God for her situation. She is easily provoked to tears and wants to be left alone, refusing to eat or talk to her family. A religious person before, she now refuses to pray or go to church stating that God has abandoned her. The nurse understands that Nancy is grieving for herself and is in the stage of:
a. bargaining
b. denial
c. anger
d. acceptance
23. The nurse visits Nancy and prods her to eat her food. Nancy replies, “What’s the use? My time is running out.” The nurse’s best response would be:
a. “The doctor ordered full diet for you so that you will be strong for surgery.”
b. “I understand how you feel but you have to try for your children’s sake.”
c. “Have you told your doctor how you feel? Are you changing your mind about your surgery?”
d. “You sound like you are giving up.”
24. The nurse feels sad about Nancy’s illness and tells her head nurse during the end of shift endorsement that “it’s unfair for Nancy to have cancer when she is still so young and with two kids.” The best response of the head nurse would be:
a. advise the nurse to “be strong and learn to control her feelings”
b. assign the nurse to another client to avoid sympathy for the client
c. reassure the nurse that the client has hope if she goes through all treatments prescribed for her
d. ask the other nurses what they feel about the patient to find out if they share the same feelings
25. Realizing that she feels angry about Nancy’s condition, the nurse learns that being self-aware is a conscious process that she should do in any situation like this because:
a. this is a necessary part of the nurse-client relationship process
b. the nurse is a role model for the client and should be strong
c. how the nurse thinks and feels affect her actions towards her client and her work
d. the nurse has to be therapeutic at all times and should not be affected
Situation: Mrs. Seva, 52 years old, asks you about possible problems regarding her elimination now that she is in the menopausal stage.
26. Instruction on health promotion regarding urinary elimination is important. Which would you include?
a. Hold urine as long as she can before emptying the bladder to strengthen her sphincter muscles.
b. If burning sensation is experienced while voiding, drink pineapple juice.
c. After urination, wipe from anal area up towards the pubis.
d. Tell client to empty the bladder at each voiding.
27. Mrs. Seva also tells the nurse that she is often constipated. Because she is aging, what physical changes predispose her to constipation?
a. inhibition of the parasympathetic reflex
b. weakness of spincter muscles of anus
c. loss of tone of the smooth muscles of the colon
d. decreased ability to absorb fluids in the lower intestines
28. The nurse understands that one of these factors contribute to constipation:
a excessive exercise
b. high-fiber diet
c. no regular time for defecation daily
d. prolonged use of laxatives
29. Mrs. Seva talks about fear of being incontinent due to a prior experience of dribbling urine when laughing or sneezing and when she has a full bladder. Your most appropriate instruction would be to:
a. tell client to drink less fluids to avoid “accidents”
b. instruct client to start wearing thin adult diapers
c. ask the client to bring extra underwear, to change “just in case”
d. teach client pelvic exercises to strengthen perineal muscles
30. Mrs. Seva asked for instructions for skin care for her mother who has urinary incontinence and is almost always in bed. Your instruction would focus on prevention of skin irritation and breakdown by:
a. using thick diapers to absorb urine well
b. drying the skin with baby powder to prevent or mask the smell of ammonia
c. thorough washing, rinsing and drying of skin area that get wet with urine
d. making sure that linens are smooth and dry at all times
Situation: Using Maslow’s need theory—airway, breathing and circulation are the physiological needs vital to life. The nurse’s knowledge and ability to identify and immediately intervene to meet these needs are important to save lives.
31. Which of these clients has a problem with the transport of oxygen from the lungs to the tissues?
a. Carol with tumor in the brain
b. Theresa with anemia
c. Sonnyboy with a fracture in the femur
d. Bridgette with diarrhea
32. You noted from the lab exams in the chart of Mr. Santos that he has reduced oxygen in the blood. This condition is called:
a. cyanosis
b. hypoxia
c. hypoxemia
d. anemia
33. You will do nasopharyngeal suctioning on Mr. Abad. Your guide for the length of insertion of the tubing for an adult would be…
a. the tip of the nose to the base of the neck
b. the distance from the tip of the nose to the middle of the neck
c. the distance from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear lobe
d. 8 to 10 inches
34. While doing nasopharyngeal suctioning on Mr. Abad, the nurse can avoid trauma to the area by…
a. applying suction for at least 20-30 seconds each time to ensure that all secretions are removed
b. using gloves to prevent introduction of pathogens to the respiratory system
c. applying no suction while inserting the catheter
d. rotating the catheter as it is inserted with gentle suction
35. Myrna has difficulty breathing when on her back and must sit upright in bed to breathe effectively and comfortably. The nurse documents this condition as:
a. apnea
b. orthopnea
c. dyspnea
d. tachypnea
Situation: You are assigned to screen for hypertension. Your task is to take blood pressure readings and you are informed about avoiding the common mistakes in BP-taking that lead to false or inaccurate blood pressure readings.
36. When taking the blood pressure reading, the cuff should be…
a. deflated fully, then immediately start second reading for the same client
b. deflated quicly after inflating up to 180 mmHg
c. large enough to wrap around the upper arm of the adult client, 1 cm above the brachial artery
d. inflated to 30 mmHg above the estimated systolic BP, based on palpation of the radial or brachial artery
37. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is one of the leading causes of death worldwide and is a preventable disease. The primary cause of COPD is…
a. tobacco hack
b. bronchitis
c. asthma
d. cigarette smoking
38. In your health education class for clients with diabetes, you teach them the areas for control for diabetes which include all EXCEPT:
a. regular physical activity
b. thorough knowledge of foot care
c. prevention
d, proper nutrition
39. You teach your clients the difference between Type I (IDDM) and Type II (NDDM) diabetes. Which of the following is TRUE?
a. both types of diabetes mellitus clients are all prone to developing ketosis
B. type II is more common and preventable compared to type I
c. type I is characterized by fasting hyperglycemia
d. type II is characterized by abnormal immune response
40. Lifestyle-related diseases in general are common risk factors. These are the following except:
a. physical activity
b. smoking
c. genetics
d. nutrition
Situation: Nurse Rivera witnessed a vehicular accident near the hospital where she works. She decides to get involved and help the victims of the accident.
41. Her priority nursing action would be to:
a. assess damage to property
b. assist in the police investigation since she is a witness
c. report the incident immediately to the local police authorities
d. assess the extent of injuries incurred by the victims of the accident
42. Priority attention should be given to which of these clients?
a. Linda, who shows severe anxiety due to trauma of the accident
b. Ryan, who has chest injury, is pale, and with difficulty breathing
c. Noel, who has lacerations on the arms, with mild bleeding
d. Andy, whose left ankle swelled, and has some abrasions
43. In the emergency room, Nurse Rivera is assigned to attend to the client with lacerations on the arms. While assessing the extent of the wound, the nurse observes that the wound is now starting to bleed profusely. The most immediate nursing action would be to…
a. apply antiseptic to prevent infection
b. clean the wound vigorously of contaminants
c. control and reduce bleeding of the wound
d. bandage the wound and elevate the arm
44. The nurse applies dressing on the bleeding site. This intervention is done to…
a. reduce the need to change dressings frequently
b. allow the pus to surface faster
c. protect the wound from microorganisms in the air
d. promote hemostasis
45. After the treatment, the client is sent home and asked to come back for follow-up care. Your responsibilities when the client is to be discharged include the following EXCEPT:
a. encouraging the client to go to the outpatient clinic for follow-up care
b. accurate recording of treatment done and instructions given to client
c. instructing the client to see you after discharge for further assistance
d. providing instructions regarding wound care
Situation: While working in the clinic, a new client, Geline, 35 years old, arrives for her doctor’s appointment. As the clinic nurse, you are to assist the client to fill up forms, gather data, and make an assessment.
46. The purpose of your initial nursing interview is to…
a. record pertinent information in the client’s chart for the health team to read
b. assist the client t find solutions to her health concerns
c. understand her lifestyle, health needs and possible problems to develop a plan of care
d. make nursing diagnoses for her identified health problems
47. While interviewing Geline, she starts to moan and doubles up in pain. She tells you that the pain occurs about an hour after taking black coffee without breakfast for a few weeks now. You will record this as follows:
a. “Client claims to have abdominal pains after intake of coffee, unrelieved by analgesics.”
b. “After drinking coffee, the client experienced severe abdominal pain.”
c. “Client complained of intermittent abdominal pain an hour after drinking coffee.”
d. “Client reported abdominal pain an hour after drinking black coffee, for three weeks now.”
48. Geline tells you that she drinks black coffee frequently within the day “to have energy and be wide awake” and she eats nothing for breakfast and eats strictly vegetable salads for lunch and dinner to lose weight. She has lost weight during the past 2 weeks. In planning a healthy and balanced diet with Geline, you will…
a. start her off with a cleansing diet to free her body of toxins, then change to a vegetarian diet and drink plenty of fluids
b. plan a high-protein diet, low-carbohydrate diet for her, considering her favorite foods
c. instruct her to attend classes in nutrition to find foods rich in complex carbohydrates, to maintain her daily high-energy level
d. discuss with her the importance of eating a variety of foods from major food groups, with plenty of fluids
49. Geline tells you that she drinks 4-5 cups of black coffee and diet cola drinks. She also smokes up to a pack of cigarettes daily. She confesses that she is in her 2nd month of pregnancy but does not want to become fat, that is why she limits her food intake. You warn or caution her about which of the following?
a. Caffeine products affect the central nervous and may cause the mother to have a “nervous breakdown.”
b. Malnutrition and its possible effects on growth and development may cause problems in the unborn fetus.
c. Caffeine causes a stimulant effect on both the mother and the baby.
d. Studies show conclusively that caffeine causes mental retardation.
50. Your health education plan for Geline stresses proper diet for a pregnant woman and the prevention of non-communicable diseases that are influenced by her lifestyle. These include the following EXCEPT:
a. cardiovascular diseases
b. cancer
c. diabetes mellitus
d. osteoporosis
Situation: Management of nurse practitioners is done by qualified nursing leaders who had clinical experience and management experience.
51. An example of a management function of a nurse is:
a. teaching the patient to do breathing and coughing exercises
b. preparing for a surprise party for a client
c. performing nursing procedures for clients
d. directing and evaluating the staff nurses
52. Your Head Nurse in the unit believes that the staff nurses are NOT capable of decision-making so she makes decisions for everyone without consulting anybody. This type of leadership is:
a. laissez-faire leadership
b. democratic leadership
c. autocratic leadership
d. managerial leadership
53. When the Head Nurse in your ward plots and approves your work schedules and directs your work, she is demonstrating:
a. responsibility
b. delegation
c. accountability
d. authority
54. The following tasks can be safely delegated by a nurse to a non-nurse health worker EXCEPT:
a. transfer a client from bed to chair
b. change IV infusions
c. irrigation of a nasogastric tube
d. take vital signs
55. You made a mistake in giving the medicine to the wrong client. You notify the client’s doctor and write an incident report. You are demonstrating…
a. responsibility
b. accountability
c. authority
d. autocracy
Situation: Mr. Dizon, 84 years old, is brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of hypertension, flushed face, severe headache and nausea. You are doing the initial assessment of vital signs.
56. You are to measure the client’s initial blood pressure by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
a. take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison
b. listen to and identify the phases of Korotkoff’s sounds
c. pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
d. observe procedures for infection control
57. A pulse oximeter is attached to Mr. Dizon’s finger to…
a. determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low and if he needs blood transfusion
b. check level of client’s tissue perfusion
c. measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medications
d. detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
58. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Mr. Dizon is admitted to the ward with an order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and this will cause the blood pressure reading to be…
a. inconsistent
b. low systolic and high diastolic
c. higher than what the reading should be
d. lower than what the reading should be
59. Through the client’s health history, you gather that Mr. Dizon smokes and drinks coffee. When taking the blood pressure of a client who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse wait before taking the client’s blood pressure for accurate reading?
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 5 minutes
60. While the client has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is shining on the area where the oximeter is. Your action will be to…
a. set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter
b. do nothing since there is no identified problem
c. cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bed sheet
d. change the location of the sensor every 4 hours
Situation: The nurse’s understanding of ethico-legal responsibilities will guide his/her nursing practice.
61. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life, biology and the health professionals is referred to as…
a. morality
b. religion
c. values
d. bioethics
62. The purpose of having a nurses’ code of ethics is to…
a. delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice
b. identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations
c. help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses
d. define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses and clients
63. The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to…
a. act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
b. not take sides, remain neutral and fair
c. assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
d. be accountable for his or her own actions
64. You inform the patient about his rights which include the following EXCEPT:
a. right to expect reasonable continuity of care
b. right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies or experiments
c. right to obtain information about another patient
d. right to expect that the records about his care will be treated as confidential
65. This principle states that a person has unconditional worth and has the capacity to determine his own destiny:
a. bioethics
b. justice
c. fidelity
d. autonomy
Situation: Your Director of Nursing wants to improve the quality of health care offered in the hospital. As a staff nurse in that hospital, you know that this entails quality assurance programs.
66. The following mechanism can be utilized as part of the quality assurance program of your hospital EXCEPT:
a. patient satisfaction surveys
b. peer review to assess the care provided
c. review of clinical records of care of the client
d. use of Nursing Interventions Classification (NIC)
67. The use of the Standards of Nursing Practice is important in the hospital. Which of the following statements best describes what it is?
a. These are statements that describe the maximum or highest level of acceptable performance in nursing practice.
b. It refers to the scope of nursing practice as defined in Republic Act 9173.
c. It is a license issued by the Professional Regulation Commission to protect the public from substandard nursing practice.
d. The Standards of Care includes the various steps of the nursing process and the standards of professional performance.
68. You are taking care of a critically-ill client and the doctor-in-charge calls to order a DNR (do not resuscitate) order for the client. Which of the following is the APPROPRIATE action when getting DNR orders over the phone?
a. Have the registered nurse, family spokesperson, Nurse Supervisor and doctor sign.
b. Have 2 nurses validate the phone order—both nurses should sign the order and the doctor should sign his order within 24 hours.
c. Have the registered nurse, family and doctor sign the order.
d. Have 1 nurse take the order and sign it, and have the doctor sign it within 24 hours.
69. To ensure client safety before starting blood transfusions, the following are needed before the procedure can be done EXCEPT:
a. take baseline vital signs
b. blood should be warmed to room temperature for 30 minutes before blood transfusions are administered
c. have 2 nurses verify client identification, blood type, unit number and expiration date of blood
d. get consent if signed for blood transfusion
70. Part of the standards of care has to do with the use of restraints. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Doctor’s order for restraints should be signed within 24 hours.
b. Remove and re-apply restraints every 2 hours.
c. Check client’s pulse, blood pressure and circulation every 4 hours.
d. Offer food and toileting every 2 hours.
Situation: During the nutrition education class discussion, a 58-year old man, Mr. Bruno, shows increased interest.
71. Mr. Bruno asks what the ‘normal’ allowable salt intake is. Your BEST response to Mr. Bruno is…
a. 1 tsp of salt per day with iodine, and sprinkle of MSG
b. 5 grams per day, or 1 tsp of table salt per day
c. 1 tbsp of salt per day, with some patis and toyo
d. 1 tsp of salt per day, but no patis and toyo
72. Your instructions to reduce or limit salt intake include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. eat natural foods with little or no salt added
b. limit use of table salt and use condiments instead
c. use herbs and spices
d. limit intake of preserved or processed foods
73. Teaching strategies and approaches when giving nutrition education is influenced by age, sex and immediate concerns of the group. Your presentation for a group of young mothers would be best if you focus on…
a. diets limited in salt and fat
b. harmful effects of drugs and alcohol intake
c. commercial preparation of dishes
d. cooking demonstration and meat planning
74. Cancer cure is dependent on…
a. use of alternative methods of healing
b. watching out for warning signs of cancer
c. proficiency in doing breast self-examination
d. early detection and prompt treatment
75. The role of the health worker in health education is to:
a. report incidence of no-communicable diseases to the community health center
b. educate as many people as possible about the warning signs of non-communicable diseases
c. focus on smoking cessation projects
d. monitor clients with hypertension
Situation: You are assigned to take care of 10 patients during the morning shift. The endorsement includes the IV infusion and medications for these clients.
76. Mr. Felipe, 36 years old, is to be given 2700 ml of D5LR to infuse for 18 hours starting at 8 am. At what rate should the IV fluid be flowing hourly?
a. 100 ml per hour
b. 210 ml per hour
c. 150 ml per hour
d. 190 ml per hour
77. Mr. Atienza is to receive 150 ml/hr of D5W IV infusion for 12 hours for a total of 1800 ml. He is also losing gastric fluid which must be replaced every 2 hours. Between 8 am and 10 am, Mr. Atienza has lost 250 ml of gastric fluid. How much fluid should he receive at 11 am?
a. 350 ml/hr
b. 275 ml/hr
c. 400 ml/hr
d. 200 ml/hr
78. You are to apply a transdermal patch of nitroglycerin to your client. The following are appropriate guidelines to observe EXCEPT:
a. Apply to a hairless, clean area of the skin that is not subject to too much wrinkling.
b. Patches may be applied to a distal part of the extremities, like the forearm.
c. Change application and sites regularly, to prevent irritation of the skin.
d. Wear gloves, to avoid any medication on your hands.
79. You will be applying eye drops to Miss Romualdez. After checking all the necessary information and cleaning the affected eyelid and eyelashes, you administer the ophthalmic drops by instilling the eye drops…
a. directly into the cornea
b. while pressing the lacrimal duct
c. into the outer third of the lower conjunctival sac
d. from the inner canthus going towards the side of the eye
80. When applying eye ointment, the following guidelines apply EXCEPT:
a. Squeeze about 2 cm of ointment and gently close but do not squeeze the eye.
b. Apply the ointment from the inner canthus, going outward of the affected eye.
c. Discard the first bead of the eye ointment before application because the tube is likely to expel more than the desired amount of ointment.
d. Hold the tube above the conjunctival sac, and do not let the tip touch the conjunctiva.
Situation: The staff Nurse Supervisor requests all the staff nurses to “brainstorm: and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on self-administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that there are nurses available daily to do health education classes.
81. The plan of the Nurse Supervisor is an example of:
a. in-service education process
b. efficient management of human resources
c. increasing human resources
d. primary prevention
82. When Mrs. Guevarra, a nurse, delegates aspects of the client’s care to the nursing aide who is an unlicensed staff, Mrs. Guevarra…
a. makes the assignment to teach the staff member
b. is assigning the responsibility to the aide, but not the accountability for those tasks
c. does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide
d. must know how to perform the task delegated
83. Connie, the new nurse, appears tired and sluggish and lacks the enthusiasm she had 6 weeks ago when she started the job. The Nurse Supervisor should…
a. empathize with the nurse and listen to her
b. tell her to take the day off
c. discuss how she is adjusting to her new job
d. ask about her family life
84. The process of formal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurse and the employer is called…
a. grievance
b. arbitration
c. collective bargaining
d. strike
85. You are attending a certification on cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and required by the hospital employing you. This is called…
a. professional course towards credits
b. in-service education
c. advance training
d. continuing education
Situation: There are various developments in health education that the nurse should know about.
86. The provision of health information in the rural areas nationwide through television and radio programs and video conferencing is referred to as…
a. community health program
b. tele-health program
c. wellness program
d. Red Cross program
87. A nearby community provides blood pressure screening, height and weight measurement, smoking cessation classes and aerobics class services. This type of program is referred to as…
a. outreach program
b. hospital extension program
c. barangay health program
d. wellness program
88. Part of teaching clients in health promotion is responsibility for one’s health. When Danica states she needs to improve her nutritional status, this means:
a. Goals and interventions to be followed by client are based on the nurse’s priorities.
b. Goals and interventions developed by the nurse and client should be approved by the doctor.
c. The nurse will decide the goals and interventions needed to meet client goals.
d. The client will decide the goals and interventions required to meet her goals.
89. Nurse Beatrice is providing tertiary prevention to Mrs. De Villa. An example of tertiary prevention is…
a. marriage counseling
b. self-examination for breast cancer
c. identifying complications of diabetes
d. poison control
90. Mrs. Ostrea has a schedule for Pap smear. She has a strong family history of cervical cancer. This is an example of…
a. tertiary prevention
b. secondary prevention
c. health screening
d. primary prevention
Situation: Ronnie was in a vehicular accident where he sustained injury to his left ankle. In the Emergency Room, you notice how anxious he looks.
91. You establish rapport with him in order to reduce his anxiety. You initially…
a. take him to the radiology section for X-ray of affected extremity
b. identify yourself and state your purpose in being with the client
c. talk to the physician for an order of Valium
d. do inspection and palpation to check extent of his injuries
92. While doing your assessment, Ronnie asks you, “Do I have a fracture? I don’t want to have a cast.” The MOST APPROPRIATE nursing response would be:
a. “You have to have an X-ray first to know if you have a fracture.”
b. “Why do you sound so scared? It’s just a cast and it’s not painful.”
c. “You seem to be concerned about being in a cast.”
d. “Based on my assessment, there doesn’t seem to be a fracture.”
93. Ronnie is very anxious and is unaware of the extent of his injury. The nurse can BEST assist him by…
a. asking the doctor to give an order for a sedative to calm him down
b. informing him that he is being treated by a very competent health team, so he has nothing to worry about
c. identifying his level of anxiety to determine how much information he can understand
d. allaying his anxiety by telling him that he only sustained a minor injury
94. After cleaning the abrasions and applying antiseptic, the nurse applies cold compress to the swollen ankle as ordered by the physician. The statement that shows the nurse has CORRECT UNDERSTANDING of the use of cold compress is…
a. “Cold compress reduces blood viscosity in the affected area.”
b. “It is safer to apply than hot compress.”
c. “Cold compress prevents edema and reduces pain.”
d. “It eliminates toxic waste products due to vasodilation.”
95. After receiving prescription for pain medication, Ronnie is instructed to continue applying 30- minute cold compress at home, and start 30-minute hot compress the next day. You explain that the use of hot compress..
a. produces an anesthetic effect
b. increases nutrition in the blood to promote wound healing
c. increases oxygenation to the injured tissues for better healing
d. induces vasoconstriction to prevent infection
Situation: A nursing professor assigns a group of students to do data gathering by interviewing their classmates as subjects.
96. She instructed the interviewers not to tell the interviewees that the data gathered are for her own research project for publication. This teacher has violated the student’s right to:
a. not to be harmed
b. disclosure
c. privacy
d. self-determination
97. A nurse preceptor observes that many clients are being readmitted in the ward for post-operative infections. She suggests to the students that they do a research on this topic. What research activity is this?
a. sharing research results with colleagues
b. identifying clinical problem
c. developing guidelines for patient care
d. data collection
98. Quantitative research involves numerical data. Which of the following is based on quantitative research?
a. A study on the effects of the white uniform of hospital personnel on pediatric patients
b. The effects of regular nurse visits to client’s bedside on the number of client’s calls to the nurse
c. A study on the benefits of pre-operative health instructions to client’s feeling of anxiety
d. A study on the effects of touch on the client’s feeling of isolation
99. Before the nurse researcher starts her study, she analyzes how much time, money, materials and people she will need to complete the research project. The analysis prior to beginning the study is called:
a. validity
b. feasibility
c. reliability
d. researchability
100. Data analysis is to be done and the nurse researcher wants to include variability. These include the following EXCEPT:
a. variance
b. range
c. standards of deviation
d. mean
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